2 Thessalonians 2:1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
2 Thessalonians 2:2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.
2 Thessalonians 2:3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
2 Thessalonians 2:4 Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God.
2 Thessalonians 2:5 Remember ye not, that, when I was yet with you, I told you these things?
2 Thessalonians 2:6 And now ye know what withholdeth that he might be revealed in his time.
2 Thessalonians 2:7 For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way.
2 Thessalonians 2:8 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming
Thanks Goodboy, brother. Blessings. The way I see all of those verses is related to the reveal when antichrist demands worship though. To add further complication, lol, I tend to go with another "no one held this view ever" position on the restrainer. There is a lot of research on what is considered in the Greek. My view leans on what makes the most sense connected to the timing of 2:4. That would be the two witnesses.
The prevailing evangelical view is that the church or Spirit of God in the church leaves and that is the restrainer. I admit this is a possibility. But what the scripture itself says in relation to "what does reveal mean?" is that he makes himself to be God. That reveal. It does not say the man of lawlessness is revealed when he makes the covenant with the many. If the scripture said that plainly, I would be in error. I may be in error if it is saying that but less obvious. Amen.
The reason I brought that up is that just because the overwhelming majority of the church is convinced the church is the restrainer, does not have to mean that is what the word is saying. It may be saying that. But it does not say that, directly. The context of what defines "reveal" is when he demands worship. That is in the context. Even so, yes, I may be mistaken. But who is the AC being revealed to if the church raptures befor that (and it is at the time of rapture)? The angels? Believers on the way up? Because for the world, they will not recognize him.
I've heard it said that perhaps it is the tribulation saints that start to wake up to his reveal. And this is possible, amen. But the referent to what reveal means is not: "So that those who discover who he is will be watching." To be fair and balanced though, I will offer a good counter argument. If the sense of AC being revealed has to be related to the very next verse, and most will be under a strong delusion, how is it that the AC is revealed? Because, again, even at that time most of the world won't see it that way. So that is a legitmate and fair counter argument to my line of reasoning in the word. But at the end of the day though the object focus of being revealed is by the word clearly stated in the very next verse: "shewing himself to be God." So who he is revealed to can be considered a mute point potentially. But what is clear in scripture tends to follow the exegetical rule of "go with the most obvious first." And it is there. In the very next verse, is my point on that.
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So my point is not to say my view upon scripture is more accurate. I believe it is. But that does not make it so. I am not arguing for what that verse says or does not say foremostlly. My primary reason for bringing it up is that it is a set of verses that does have reasonable shades of interpretation in scholarship. To some degree. A set of verses like that, to me, would not be the best foundation to build a theology on. But I understand why it might seem clear in a different way. Because it does not come right out and say the AC revealed means himself showing he is God. Amen. So on that note, yes, it could be "inferring" that that is what he becomes later. And that is a position. Amen. But even though the word does not say it means what reveal means more than what the one being revealed will become later, it does go with the "later" language. So for the Berean it is for us to consider.
I know we will see the verse differently. But there are a lot of assumptions for 2 Thes to be about the transition from the age of grace to the tribulation:
- That apostasy is the rapture and not just apostasy from religion
- That what is meant by reveal is not clearly stated
- That the church is the restrainer
- That what is revealed about the AC is not what is revealed at the time he is revealed (almost feels like Dr. Suess there for a second...lol)
So we have at least those 4 assumptions. 1 assumption is in good faith considered a reasonable clue to perhaps be more circumspect as to a passage meaning. But 4? So I am just saying this:
- Maybe apostasy is not the rapture
- Maybe 2:4 is what is being revealed
- Maybe the church is not the restrainer
- And maybe what is stated about the AC revealing is not just what AC becomes later outside the context of him being revealed -- but what being revealed actually looks like
The exegetical accuracy is not my point. I am fine with having strong convictions on 2 Thes 2 being about the rapture and the transition from age of grace to tribulation. I consider that myself, amen. But lean more toward it referring to the midpoint. Which if true, than it does not say the church won't know. Personally, I agree with TT that the church won't know biblically, even if these verses are talking about the midpoint. Because of a strange hermenuetic: Even if the majority of the church may be off there, the providence of God might use the church's misunderstanding to overlap what He intends to do anyway. Not because we see the scripture more accurtely. But because even though those verses might be about the midpoint, it might just so happen that God, in His providence, to permit church error to be wrong on the exegesis but right on overlay event occuring the same as if it was what those verses are saying was rapture timing. I believe that can be a legit hermenuetic. So much so, that what does not convince me in evangelical exegesis, might convince me in their good faith spirit to see things a certain way.
But if those verses are talking about the midpoint, and the subject matter about our being gathered to Him relates to the former chapter and Day of the Lord (which the older manuscripts use) more than it relates specifically to the timing of the rapture, here is what 2 Thes looks like to me.
- You have been bothered by some claiming the day of the Lord has come
- I just told you in chapter 1 what it looks like when Christ is revealed at the end of the tribulation
- I realize you are concerned that this is the Day of the Lord
- But that day will not come unless the AC is revealed. And when Christ is revealed, He will slay the enemy with the sword of his tongue.
I understand the KJV uses "Day of Christ." Which does seem to have the blessed hope in mind when stated as such. But the Greek term used "is at hand" is ongoing. Something currently happening. Not something that happened in the past. So if it is the blessed hope, why would the Greek grammatical structure of the rapture "is" on going cause the church alarm. Instead, if it means rapture? So the church would be excited. Not alarmed. Therefore, with the Greek Grammer and older documents containing the "Day of the Lord," and how it would only make sense if what was currently upon them happening to be something to cause alarm...it would be The Day of the Lord they where concerned with being in currently.
So the answer looks to be: The Day of the Lord won't come unless the AC is revealed first. I've seen the arguments for KJV Day of Christ. And some consideration on that is intriguing. But at the end of the day though, Thesalonica would not be concerned if the rapture was happening to them on that day or season they were in. The Day of the Lord, would. So this adds a few more potential assumptions...lol.
I am not trying to win an argument. My point was just that we can say "If you don't know Christ is God and rose from the dead, and wants to forgive you, if you know your Bible better, then you would not struggle with if that is true or not." That would be true. I just don't think though that saying to someone they would know their Bible better if when they read it they would see how I interpret some difficult (or semi-difficult) passage. What I meant was that that, to me, is not the best way to encourage someone to read the Bible more. If it runs any reasonable % of it being "our interpretation," that, to me, is not the = to someone knowing their Bible better. That is thinking we think we do to them.
Jane was just practicing a virtue of new forum member to have consideration. I think that is commendable of her. In her humble admittance to not understanding scripture as much as some might, she was just saying that it would be good to show some consideration, or more consideration to the new member. I agree. Even though I don't agree with his position either. But I commend his bold introduction. And Jane's consideration of it. The view we are discussing about 2 Thes 2 is not settled science. Sure it means what it means. And maybe the overwhelming evangelical view on it is correct. But it might not be. This is not an erea in scripture without controversy. It has a ton of controversy. So just being more thoughtful of where others might be coming from is reasonable wisdom in practice if we ourselves understood the mission field of sorts we are in. That that 2 Thes 2 in the commons is hugely debated. And although we might not know the word as much as we might. We can know the sensitivity of the drama in the church that has a somewhat ongoing foodfight over those verses.
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PS -- I know for some this is a passionate passage to defend pretrib doctrine. I'm pretrib. So I am not saying the Bible does not say pretrib rapture. I believe it does demonstrate pretrib rapture. So by seeing 2 Thes 2 differently, it is not because I argue against the pretrib position. Which usually is the case when those verses are picked on. Amen. I don't think we have to have 2 Thes 2 to prove pretrib rapture though. I think it is demonstrated in other places. To those that hold a pretrib rapture view, this set of verses can be a kind of sacred cow (saying in gest of course). But I just want my leanings to be clear. I do think Theselonians does teach pretrib by the way. But in the first book: Chapter 5. Blessings