TCC
Well-known
Yes I agree. That would have to be true. On this topic here though I lefts an earlier post with reference to 2 Thes 2 in the Greek. And as far as I am aware, the way it seems to read in the Greek is that: Apostacy & Man Of Lawlessness Reveal could be what is "FIRST" before the day of the Lord. LIkely it goes in that order: Apostasy then Reveal. For me I see 2 Thes 2 talking about the midpoint and not the transition from age of grace to tribulation. So in that sense the apostasy would be seal 5 + all or most of the trumpets timeframe. I would see only bowls exist in the entire second half of the tribulation. If so, then there is an apostsy during the first half of the trib when the AC is revealed by demanding worship. In that sense it probably seems I am reading from an entirely different Bible...lol. But there is a range within orthodoxy."reveal" isnt the same as "exist." i do know what youre saying, not much else lol, but thats my response. the ac can well exist before its revealed.
But yeah still like if anyone has some Greek detail on that language, it might be kind of interesting to see if in the Greek Apostacy & Man Of Lawlessness Revealed could be grammatically at the same time (simultanious...for the sake of argument). Or at least not the focus of distinction. Whereas what would be more likely in focus is that even the antichrist has to be revealed before the Day of the Lord the Thesselonian church had concern of being in. So yeah, if anyone has input on that, this would be a great spot for it
