What's new
Christian Community Forum

Register a free account today to become a member! Once signed in, you'll be able to participate fully in the fellowship here, including adding your own topics and posts, as well as connecting with other members through your own private inbox!

Polygamy and Divorce

Cheeky200386

Well-known
What should a man do if he gets saved and has multiple wives? Is he to stay with all of them or only keep the first? What if they have kids? Is it adultery if he stays with all of them? Is it even a marriage?

Would it have been sin if Jacob divorced all but Rachael?

Just a series of questions I was wondering about. I haven’t seen it posted it on this forum.
 
What should a man do if he gets saved and has multiple wives? Is he to stay with all of them or only keep the first? What if they have kids? Is it adultery if he stays with all of them? Is it even a marriage?

Would it have been sin if Jacob divorced all but Rachael?

Just a series of questions I was wondering about. I haven’t seen it posted it on this forum.
I have no Biblical answer, but I would say that he is only really married to the first wife. :noidea:
 
From Got Questions.....


Why did God allow polygamy / bigamy in the Bible?


While the Bible nowhere explicitly condemns polygamy, God made His ideal for marriage clear throughout Scripture: one man with one woman. The first instance of polygamy/bigamy in the Bible is that of Lamech in Genesis 4:19: “Lamech married two women.” Several prominent men in the Old Testament were polygamists. Abraham, Jacob, David, Solomon, and others all had multiple wives. Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines (essentially wives of a lower status), according to 1 Kings 11:3. What are we to make of these instances of polygamy in the Old Testament? There are three questions that need to be answered: 1) Why did God allow polygamy in the Old Testament? 2) How does God view polygamy today? 3) Why did it change?

1) Why did God allow polygamy in the Old Testament? The Bible does not specifically say why God allowed polygamy, and we must remember that allowance is not the same as approval. As we speculate about God’s permissive silence, there is at least one key factor to consider. In patriarchal societies, it was nearly impossible for an unmarried woman to provide for herself. Women were often uneducated and untrained. Women relied on their fathers, brothers, and husbands for provision and protection. Unmarried women were often subjected to prostitution and slavery.

So, God may have allowed polygamy to protect and provide for the women who otherwise may have been left destitute. A man would take multiple wives and serve as the provider and protector of all of them. While definitely not ideal, living in a polygamist household was far better than the alternative of prostitution, slavery, or starvation. In addition to the protection/provision factor, polygamy enabled a much faster expansion of humanity, fulfilling God’s command to “be fruitful and increase in number; multiply on the earth” (Genesis 9:7).

2) How does God view polygamy today? Even while recording cases of polygamy, the Bible presents monogamy as the plan that conforms most closely to God’s ideal for marriage. The Bible says that God’s original intention was for one man to be married to only one woman: “For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife [not wives], and they will become one flesh [not fleshes]” (Genesis 2:24). The consistent use of the singular in this verse should be noted. Later, in Deuteronomy 17:14–20, God says that the kings were not to multiply wives (or horses or gold). While this cannot be interpreted as a command that kings must be monogamous, it does indicate that having multiple wives causes problems. Such problems can be clearly seen in the life of Solomon (1 Kings 11:3–4).

In the New Testament, 1 Timothy 3:2, 12 and Titus 1:6 list being “the husband of one wife” as a qualification for spiritual leadership in the church. The phrase could literally be translated “a one-woman man.” However broadly or narrowly that qualification should be applied, in no sense can a polygamist be considered a “one-woman man.” Is the prohibition of polygamy only for elders and deacons, the “example-setters”? No, the standard of monogamy should apply to all Christians.

Ephesians 5:22–33 speaks of the relationship between husbands and wives. When referring to a husband (singular), the passage always also refers to a wife (singular). “For the husband is the head of the wife [singular]. . . . He who loves his wife [singular] loves himself. For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife [singular], and the two will become one flesh. . . . Each one of you also must love his wife [singular] as he loves himself, and the wife [singular] must respect her husband [singular].” Further, if polygamy were allowable, the illustration of Christ’s relationship with His Body (the Church) falls apart (Ephesians 5:32). In Colossians 3:18–19, Paul refers to husbands and wives in the plural, but in that passage it is clear that he is addressing all the husbands and wives among the Colossian believers.

3) Why did it change? It is not so much that God disallowed something He had previously allowed as it is that God restored marriage to His original plan. As seen in Genesis 2, polygamy was not God’s original intent. God seems to have allowed polygamy to solve a problem, but that solution was not the ideal. In most modern societies, there is absolutely no need for polygamy. In most cultures today, women are able to provide for and protect themselves—removing the only “positive” aspect of polygamy. Further, most modern nations outlaw polygamy. According to Romans 13:1–7, we are to obey the laws the government establishes, including laws prohibiting polygamy.

Are there some instances in which the allowance for polygamy would still apply today? Perhaps, but it is unfathomable that there would be no other solution. Due to the “one flesh” aspect of marriage, the need for oneness and harmony in marriage, and the lack of any real need for polygamy, it is our firm belief that polygamy does not honor God and is not His design for marriage.


 
From Got Questions.....


Why did God allow polygamy / bigamy in the Bible?


While the Bible nowhere explicitly condemns polygamy, God made His ideal for marriage clear throughout Scripture: one man with one woman. The first instance of polygamy/bigamy in the Bible is that of Lamech in Genesis 4:19: “Lamech married two women.” Several prominent men in the Old Testament were polygamists. Abraham, Jacob, David, Solomon, and others all had multiple wives. Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines (essentially wives of a lower status), according to 1 Kings 11:3. What are we to make of these instances of polygamy in the Old Testament? There are three questions that need to be answered: 1) Why did God allow polygamy in the Old Testament? 2) How does God view polygamy today? 3) Why did it change?

1) Why did God allow polygamy in the Old Testament? The Bible does not specifically say why God allowed polygamy, and we must remember that allowance is not the same as approval. As we speculate about God’s permissive silence, there is at least one key factor to consider. In patriarchal societies, it was nearly impossible for an unmarried woman to provide for herself. Women were often uneducated and untrained. Women relied on their fathers, brothers, and husbands for provision and protection. Unmarried women were often subjected to prostitution and slavery.

So, God may have allowed polygamy to protect and provide for the women who otherwise may have been left destitute. A man would take multiple wives and serve as the provider and protector of all of them. While definitely not ideal, living in a polygamist household was far better than the alternative of prostitution, slavery, or starvation. In addition to the protection/provision factor, polygamy enabled a much faster expansion of humanity, fulfilling God’s command to “be fruitful and increase in number; multiply on the earth” (Genesis 9:7).

Bible Questions Answered
Menu icon
Find Out
How to go to heaven
How to get right with God

Home Content Index Relationships Getting Married Polygamy
Question
Why did God allow polygamy / bigamy in the Bible?
translate
video
podcast
GQkidz
polygamy Bible, bigamy Bible
audio
Answer

While the Bible nowhere explicitly condemns polygamy, God made His ideal for marriage clear throughout Scripture: one man with one woman. The first instance of polygamy/bigamy in the Bible is that of Lamech in Genesis 4:19: “Lamech married two women.” Several prominent men in the Old Testament were polygamists. Abraham, Jacob, David, Solomon, and others all had multiple wives. Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines (essentially wives of a lower status), according to 1 Kings 11:3. What are we to make of these instances of polygamy in the Old Testament? There are three questions that need to be answered: 1) Why did God allow polygamy in the Old Testament? 2) How does God view polygamy today? 3) Why did it change?



1) Why did God allow polygamy in the Old Testament? The Bible does not specifically say why God allowed polygamy, and we must remember that allowance is not the same as approval. As we speculate about God’s permissive silence, there is at least one key factor to consider. In patriarchal societies, it was nearly impossible for an unmarried woman to provide for herself. Women were often uneducated and untrained. Women relied on their fathers, brothers, and husbands for provision and protection. Unmarried women were often subjected to prostitution and slavery.

So, God may have allowed polygamy to protect and provide for the women who otherwise may have been left destitute. A man would take multiple wives and serve as the provider and protector of all of them. While definitely not ideal, living in a polygamist household was far better than the alternative of prostitution, slavery, or starvation. In addition to the protection/provision factor, polygamy enabled a much faster expansion of humanity, fulfilling God’s command to “be fruitful and increase in number; multiply on the earth” (Genesis 9:7).

2) How does God view polygamy today? Even while recording cases of polygamy, the Bible presents monogamy as the plan that conforms most closely to God’s ideal for marriage. The Bible says that God’s original intention was for one man to be married to only one woman: “For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife [not wives], and they will become one flesh [not fleshes]” (Genesis 2:24). The consistent use of the singular in this verse should be noted. Later, in Deuteronomy 17:14–20, God says that the kings were not to multiply wives (or horses or gold). While this cannot be interpreted as a command that kings must be monogamous, it does indicate that having multiple wives causes problems. Such problems can be clearly seen in the life of Solomon (1 Kings 11:3–4).

Bible Questions Answered
Menu icon
Find Out
How to go to heaven
How to get right with God

Home Content Index Relationships Getting Married Polygamy
Question
Why did God allow polygamy / bigamy in the Bible?
translate
video
podcast
GQkidz
polygamy Bible, bigamy Bible
audio
Answer

While the Bible nowhere explicitly condemns polygamy, God made His ideal for marriage clear throughout Scripture: one man with one woman. The first instance of polygamy/bigamy in the Bible is that of Lamech in Genesis 4:19: “Lamech married two women.” Several prominent men in the Old Testament were polygamists. Abraham, Jacob, David, Solomon, and others all had multiple wives. Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines (essentially wives of a lower status), according to 1 Kings 11:3. What are we to make of these instances of polygamy in the Old Testament? There are three questions that need to be answered: 1) Why did God allow polygamy in the Old Testament? 2) How does God view polygamy today? 3) Why did it change?



1) Why did God allow polygamy in the Old Testament? The Bible does not specifically say why God allowed polygamy, and we must remember that allowance is not the same as approval. As we speculate about God’s permissive silence, there is at least one key factor to consider. In patriarchal societies, it was nearly impossible for an unmarried woman to provide for herself. Women were often uneducated and untrained. Women relied on their fathers, brothers, and husbands for provision and protection. Unmarried women were often subjected to prostitution and slavery.

So, God may have allowed polygamy to protect and provide for the women who otherwise may have been left destitute. A man would take multiple wives and serve as the provider and protector of all of them. While definitely not ideal, living in a polygamist household was far better than the alternative of prostitution, slavery, or starvation. In addition to the protection/provision factor, polygamy enabled a much faster expansion of humanity, fulfilling God’s command to “be fruitful and increase in number; multiply on the earth” (Genesis 9:7).

2) How does God view polygamy today? Even while recording cases of polygamy, the Bible presents monogamy as the plan that conforms most closely to God’s ideal for marriage. The Bible says that God’s original intention was for one man to be married to only one woman: “For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife [not wives], and they will become one flesh [not fleshes]” (Genesis 2:24). The consistent use of the singular in this verse should be noted. Later, in Deuteronomy 17:14–20, God says that the kings were not to multiply wives (or horses or gold). While this cannot be interpreted as a command that kings must be monogamous, it does indicate that having multiple wives causes problems. Such problems can be clearly seen in the life of Solomon (1 Kings 11:3–4).

In the New Testament, 1 Timothy 3:2, 12 and Titus 1:6 list being “the husband of one wife” as a qualification for spiritual leadership in the church. The phrase could literally be translated “a one-woman man.” However broadly or narrowly that qualification should be applied, in no sense can a polygamist be considered a “one-woman man.” Is the prohibition of polygamy only for elders and deacons, the “example-setters”? No, the standard of monogamy should apply to all Christians.

Ephesians 5:22–33 speaks of the relationship between husbands and wives. When referring to a husband (singular), the passage always also refers to a wife (singular). “For the husband is the head of the wife [singular]. . . . He who loves his wife [singular] loves himself. For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife [singular], and the two will become one flesh. . . . Each one of you also must love his wife [singular] as he loves himself, and the wife [singular] must respect her husband [singular].” Further, if polygamy were allowable, the illustration of Christ’s relationship with His Body (the Church) falls apart (Ephesians 5:32). In Colossians 3:18–19, Paul refers to husbands and wives in the plural, but in that passage it is clear that he is addressing all the husbands and wives among the Colossian believers.


3) Why did it change? It is not so much that God disallowed something He had previously allowed as it is that God restored marriage to His original plan. As seen in Genesis 2, polygamy was not God’s original intent. God seems to have allowed polygamy to solve a problem, but that solution was not the ideal. In most modern societies, there is absolutely no need for polygamy. In most cultures today, women are able to provide for and protect themselves—removing the only “positive” aspect of polygamy. Further, most modern nations outlaw polygamy. According to Romans 13:1–7, we are to obey the laws the government establishes, including laws prohibiting polygamy.

Are there some instances in which the allowance for polygamy would still apply today? Perhaps, but it is unfathomable that there would be no other solution. Due to the “one flesh” aspect of marriage, the need for oneness and harmony in marriage, and the lack of any real need for polygamy, it is our firm belief that polygamy does not honor God and is not His design for marriage.


I’m still not sure what the answers to my questions would be given your post. What are your thoughts?
 
I heard Mike Winger say that the wives would have a right to divorce but that the husband would be obligated to provide for all of his wives until they decide to remarry. He also shared he wasn’t sure but thought the husband was always being unfaithful with his wives during intercourse.
 
My understanding of scripture as it applies to the Christian today is that if a man has multiple wives and Then gets saved, he is biblically bound to his first wife that he married. Even if children are involved. It's sad in a way that he would have to not keep the others as his wives But God's laws about marriage are clear that a man is to be a husband of one wife.
1 Timothy 3:2
 
I heard Mike Winger say that the wives would have a right to divorce but that the husband would be obligated to provide for all of his wives until they decide to remarry. He also shared he wasn’t sure but thought the husband was always being unfaithful with his wives during intercourse.
Maybe he would be responsible for them in providing for their needs, but there can't be any intimate relationship between them.
 
Maybe he would be responsible for them in providing for their needs, but there can't be any intimate relationship between them.
It’s crazy because then would he be committing sin by not having sex with them also? Super weird scenario. I suspect this will become more common as our culture accepts Polygamy more and more. I guess I wonder if the additional wives are seen as his wives in God’s eyes. Rachael and Leah were both referred to as Jacob’s wives so I wonder if God saw it that way or if it was just really Leah that was the “real” wife.
 
I heard Mike Winger say that the wives would have a right to divorce but that the husband would be obligated to provide for all of his wives until they decide to remarry. He also shared he wasn’t sure but thought the husband was always being unfaithful with his wives during intercourse.
If he was saved after those marriages, and he repented he's forgiven.
I don't think there's any examples in Scripture for anyone saved in Christ who were obligated to financially provide for all of the wives he's not biblically bound to, but it would be a matter of conscience to take care of their needs unless they are capable of taking care of themselves.
 
It’s crazy because then would he be committing sin by not having sex with them also? Super weird scenario. I suspect this will become more common as our culture accepts Polygamy more and more. I guess I wonder if the additional wives are seen as his wives in God’s eyes. Rachael and Leah were both referred to as Jacob’s wives so I wonder if God saw it that way or if it was just really Leah that was the “real” wife.
The article I posted up thread explains the position with Rachel and Leah
 
If he was saved after those marriages, and he repented he's forgiven.
I don't think there's any examples in Scripture for anyone saved in Christ who were obligated to financially provide for all of the wives he's not biblically bound to, but it would be a matter of conscience to take care of their needs unless they are capable of taking care of themselves.
Well the Bible makes it clear a man is worse than an unbeliever and has denied the faith if he doesn’t provide for his family. I suspect he would be responsible to provide for all of the children he had with his wives. That would ultimately mean providing for the mothers too.
 
Jacob had his wives before sin was sin.

(For until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law
Romans 5:13

Moses received the Law that identified sin.
Moses wasn't born yet during the time of Jacob and Rachel and Leah
 
Jacob had his wives before sin was sin.

(For until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law
Romans 5:13

Moses received the Law that identified sin.
Moses wasn't born yet during the time of Jacob and Rachel and Leah
When I first read that verse in Romans 5:13 it blew me away. I had no idea that sin was not identified as sin until God gave the Law to Moses
 
Back
Top