In the Lords prayer Jesus shows all, the #1 issue involved for all = his Fathers name. As well at John 17:6,26--Jesus shared his Fathers name to his followers and promised to keep on making it known.) He doesn't do that direct, he does it through his true followers.
Back in the 300,s Jerome removed Gods name from the bible against Gods will who put his name in his bible over 7000 places. In Jerome's Latin Vulgate he replaced Gods name=YHWH, or YHVH( tetragramoton)( they arent 100% sure) with GOD or LORD all capitols--It was done by satans will against Gods will, WHY? To mislead. OT nearly 6800 places, as well Jerome told the Catholic leader Gods name belonged in the NT over 200 spots where the OT is quoted and the name should be in the OT. I believe Jerome had originals to use back then.
Here is a prime example of the misleading that it does= Joel 2:21-22-Those who call on the name-YHWH will be saved.--- Quoted 2x in the NT Acts 2:21, Heb 10:13--But since-LORD is in the altered versions, lord is at both NT spots. And since 1Cor 8:6 names Jesus as Lord, all using the altered translations thinks its Jesus' name to be called on but it is not. It is the Fathers name=YHWH that is to be called on.
Some seem to think Jesus is YHWH--But at Psalm 110:1-quoted at Matt 22:44= The utterance of YHWH to my Lord( Jesus is sit at my right hand until i make your enemies your footstool--proving 100% Jesus is not YHWH. But since altered versions has LORD at Ps 110:1--it causes much confusion.
Now one must ask. Why is my religion giving support to satans will using altered translations against Gods will? The New world translation and the divine name kjv( 2015) both have put Gods name back out of Love and respect for Gods will on the matter. Does one think Jesus would use an altered version? Is not being a christian mean to be christlike to the best of ones abilities, then those would keep on making Jesus' Fathers name known like Jesus does.
Does anyone know these history facts?
Back in the 300,s Jerome removed Gods name from the bible against Gods will who put his name in his bible over 7000 places. In Jerome's Latin Vulgate he replaced Gods name=YHWH, or YHVH( tetragramoton)( they arent 100% sure) with GOD or LORD all capitols--It was done by satans will against Gods will, WHY? To mislead. OT nearly 6800 places, as well Jerome told the Catholic leader Gods name belonged in the NT over 200 spots where the OT is quoted and the name should be in the OT. I believe Jerome had originals to use back then.
Here is a prime example of the misleading that it does= Joel 2:21-22-Those who call on the name-YHWH will be saved.--- Quoted 2x in the NT Acts 2:21, Heb 10:13--But since-LORD is in the altered versions, lord is at both NT spots. And since 1Cor 8:6 names Jesus as Lord, all using the altered translations thinks its Jesus' name to be called on but it is not. It is the Fathers name=YHWH that is to be called on.
Some seem to think Jesus is YHWH--But at Psalm 110:1-quoted at Matt 22:44= The utterance of YHWH to my Lord( Jesus is sit at my right hand until i make your enemies your footstool--proving 100% Jesus is not YHWH. But since altered versions has LORD at Ps 110:1--it causes much confusion.
Now one must ask. Why is my religion giving support to satans will using altered translations against Gods will? The New world translation and the divine name kjv( 2015) both have put Gods name back out of Love and respect for Gods will on the matter. Does one think Jesus would use an altered version? Is not being a christian mean to be christlike to the best of ones abilities, then those would keep on making Jesus' Fathers name known like Jesus does.
Does anyone know these history facts?